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Hi, I'm sorry but I'm new to this, so if I am not following proper protocol, please forgive me.

I have a question about commuting vs travel. I saw a similar post, but it was between a prime and a subcontractor, not a prime and one of its new employees. My scenario is this:

I have a GSA task order for, let's just say, personal services, where the customer wants a contractor to basically get people to do work for them involving performing ad-hoc analysis at the request of the xxxxx director as well as working with Division of xxxxxx to build out internal analytic capabilities to provide structured data analytics to support model methodology development and refinements.  The program office "found" the one and only person that could fulfill their requirement and wanted our prime to hire him/her (yes I know there are a lot of issues with all of this so far, but I will be getting to my specific question in a sec).  Our prime made an offer, they negotiated and so on.  The person however, lives in NY and we are in MD.  They are proposing paying for his expenses to travel to work here by train, pay for his hotel stay for 4 nights a week, and pay for rentals and other per diem.  To me, this seems like we are paying for his commute to work since he is an employee and we are paying for his trip/stay to come to work on the requirement.  

Is this allowable?

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4 minutes ago, Retreadfed said:

LPA, is the order an FFP or T&M order?

@Retreadfed, I'm so intrigued by your question, but I'll wait for its relevance to become clear.  See FAR 15.404-1(c)(2)(iv) if you're curious why I'm curious.  Cost principles normally inform the Government's objectives when cost analysis is required.

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