Perhaps my simplified explanation was bad... or maybe I have wrong information or maybe we need to throw in a discussion of severability (which virtually all our purchases are). My understanding is that, with a severable action, you could have a contract that (with one-year money) begins on Sept 30 and runs for one year (effectively the entire contract is executed during the next fiscal year), but with two-year money a contract that begins on, say, Sept 1 of the second year of the money can only run for one month. The performance cannot cross out of the fiscal years in which the money was valid. Is this wrong? or perhaps an agency restriction?