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Thanks for your help in advance. I have two questions, both pertaining to a CPFF effort. I am a contractor assembling a proposal to be a prime. Question #1: The contract period is a base period of 1 year, followed by 2 option years. The government fiscal year and the contract period dates do not line up. I have costs broken down by element by both the government fiscal year and contract period. Will the fee $ amount be set based on the government fiscal year, base period, or base period plus option years (very unlikely I imagine)? The contract will be completion form, but the "end product" will be the monthly reports on a continual effort vice a term form with a set LOE. Question #2: We do not currently have a certified final indirect cost rate proposal, and are using estimated indirect rates for the proposal. I want to make sure I understand the process - after a period of time, we will submit a certified final indirect cost rate proposal. Is that period of time a government fiscal year, or at the end of the base period?
We are a small business. We work hard to keep our indirect costs low in order to be competitive. Recently we have seen a number of RFPs in which there is no labor category for a Program or Project Manager. One Army IDIQ RFP specifically calls for bidders to provide a Program Manager with defined tasking. When we asked why “Program Manager” was not among the 53 labor categories defined in the RFP, the government's answer was: “It is expected that the Program Manager referenced in . . . will be a corporate position, chargeable to G&A/overhead." Is this appropriate? Why should all of our other clients pay for the Program Manager who supports this project (through increased indirect rates)? What recourse or alternative do bidders have to respond to situations like this where the requirements seem to be at odds with generally understood direct / indirect charging principles?