It's tricky because there was a follow-on, but the POP's aren't linear. The original contract expired 09/30/2019 and the follow-on started 09/24/2020. Why it was done this way? Well.. I'm still scratching my head..
Well spotted, forgot to include that fact. The contract was not in jeopardy of being deficient, there were funds remaining but it was from the wrong FY so bonafide need was violated. Perhaps I'm using the word ratification improperly - this modification would be a correction unilaterally issued to the Vendor for their awareness. I can't correct the 'pots' of money without initiating a modification in our contract writing system.
An excellent question, the Contracting Office submits the invoices for payment rather than the CORs or a Finance Office (working to change this). We're small and piggyback off a larger agency who actually renders payment for us. However, that agency has to be given direction on how to issue payment so I'm getting involved to make sure it's done correctly rather than leaving it to the payables technician or finance (who's not cut into the payment's process at all) to fix.
So I'm drafting a D&F to send to Legal but before I sent it I wanted to consult WifCon. I want to ensure I give them all the facts and offer my prescribed way forward. We do not have attorneys who specialize in procurement or appropriations law.