OP here.. to clarify some questions.
the specific purpose of the travel is unknown to me, only that is supports the work of the contract, lets just call it "travel for maintenance of gov systems". my position has always been, if it was obligated under an existing contract, all the cost of the travel should go to that contract. someone made the point of "if we were not awarded the follow on contract, what would happen?".. I'm not sure tbh, because the employee on that trip would still have to charge his labor incurred so if the successful bidder did not pick this person up, then I guess the original contract would have to extend to complete the trip, or the trip would be cut short. Since the follow-on contract is doing the same work, the trip for "travel for maintenance of gov systems" would also be supporting the PWS of the new contract. I think it an allocation issue as well but I have just not had this issue come up for me before to determine if this is the right way to do and should we do it every time there is a trip overlapping POP's?
I appreciate the discussion on this.
vr