I get that, but this is a five-year contract with a base and four options. We are currently in the first option year, which is about to expire. I've tracked expended vs obligated funds across the first two option years. To date, OY00 has 49% still obligated on that option year. OY01 still has 60% obligated and the option ends in two weeks. So if you look across both option years, over half of all the funding that was sent is still on contract. Some of that may be reduced due to billings and a fraction may be needed for 'rate changes' but shouldn't there be a limit? I'm just looking to understand what is reasonable.