If the Government exercises an Option unilaterally at the conclusion of a defined base period, does that action constitute a new sole-source contract?
If so, are the sole-source requirements applicable such as a D&F where, for example, lack of competition is used as a basis for the option?
Is lack of competition necessary to exercise the option?
Also is there a duty on the Government to justify that the Options is in the best interests of the Government?
If so, what steps are necessary to document the record?
How would you describe the Option if you determine it is not a sole-source action?
I hope to get some feedback soon.
Cheers.