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SharpOne11

Subcontractor Wage Adjustment

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IMO, I think the subcontract issue just bring more complications to Wage Determinations which I think is vague even at the prime level. I sent some questions to the DoL and DAU about overall Wage Determination. DoL did not respond, DAU made up some bologna that is non-value added.., typically DAU fluff.

With that said, would the question of this thread be impacted by how the prime/subcontract was proposed? What I mean is, if the subcontract (FFP or Cost type) was proposed without escalation would this be treated differently than a subcontract that did not have escalation proposed? I am not asking for FAR citations, I am just asking for some common sense and reality?

I think the essence of Wage Determination would be only if the subcontract (or prime) did not propose escalation.

PS - Vern said he gave up on this thread, so I can rest assured I will not get yelled at for this.

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IMO, I think the subcontract issue [What subcontract issue?] just bring more complications to further complicates Wage Determinations, [Makes them more complicated or raises more questions about them?] which I think is are vague [Vague in what way?] even at the prime level. I sent some questions to the DoL and DAU about overall Wage Determination ["Overall" wage determination? What is that? Is it a special kind of wage determination? Is it the process of developing wage determinations?]. DoL did not respond, DAU made up some bologna baloney that is non-value added.., typically DAU fluff.

With that said, [What said?] would the question of this thread [The original question or one of the others?] be impacted by be different depending on how the prime/subcontract was [were] proposed the prime subcontract and subcontract were negotiated? What I mean is, [Please, tell us.] if the subcontract (FFP or Cost type) [Not the "prime/subcontract" anymore?] was proposed without escalation already includes escalation, would this it be treated differently than a subcontract that did not have escalation proposed did not already include escalation? I am not asking for FAR citations, I am just asking for some common sense and reality? [is FAR in conflict with common sense and reality?]

I think the essence [the intrinsic nature?] of Wage Determination would be [What?] only if the subcontract[or] (or prime) did not propose escalation.

PS - Vern said he gave up on this thread, so I can rest assured I will not get yelled at for this.

Not yelling, but shaking my head.

P.S. No wonder DOL didn't answer you. They probably couldn't figure out what you were talking about. DAU was probably just being polite.

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