Sam101 Posted April 21, 2022 Report Share Posted April 21, 2022 I'm 99% sure that this is a dumb question but say you get a price proposal that looks like this: Base Year CLIN 1: $5,000.00 Option Year 1 CLIN 101: $7,000.00 Option Year 2 CLIN 201: $6,000.00 Option Year 3 CLIN 301: $6,000.00 Option Year 4 CLIN 401: $6,000.00 It looks goofy like the offeror is trying to kind of spread out the loss of bidding low on CLINs 2 through 4 but it's probably not unbalanced pricing since it's not significant. Is this common? I almost just want to award with making CLIN 2 be $6,000.00 and take it as an obvious clerical error, I don't want to enter into negotiations, or if I ask for clarification and they say they did it on purpose I'll want to say this just looks messed up and say it's $6,000.00 or you're out of the competition for unbalanced pricing... even though it's possibly not, in which case I can't say that they're out... has this happened to anyone before? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vern Edwards Posted April 22, 2022 Report Share Posted April 22, 2022 2 hours ago, Sam101 said: Is this common? I don't know. 2 hours ago, Sam101 said: has this happened to anyone before? Not to me. Why don't you contact the offeror and ask for an explanation? That seems like the commonsense thing to do. I don't know if your procurement is sole source or competitive. If it's competitive, then follow applicable rules about communicating after receipt of proposals. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Don Mansfield Posted April 22, 2022 Report Share Posted April 22, 2022 I would suspect that the offeror is trying to recover a nonrecurring cost within the first two years. Maybe they have a high expectation that you'll exercise Option Year 1, but are not sure about the others. There could be a good reason. I wouldn't make an assumption that it's a clerical error. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
.gif)
Recommended Posts