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  1. I'm researching a contract in anticipation of a court case, and I found that the compensation agreement for one of the officers is that he receive 15% of the profit on the contract, after all other profit obligations are taken care of. If the contract gets a lot of task orders, this could be an incredible amount of money, far in excess of the allowable costs for executive compensation. But that just means it's not an allowable direct or indirect charge against the govt. If the contractor wants to spend his profit in that manner, I don't think we can prevent it, can we? The contractor can do whatever he wants with his profit - give it to charity or buy his mistress a Lambo, right? The govt has no way to prohibit or regulate it. If I'm wrong, let me know.