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Good afternoon everyone, I have a couple questions concerning FAR 52.232-22 Limitation of Funds that I was hoping someone could answer. Does the LOF clause apply to each CLIN on a contract? In other words, if I have a contract containing a CPFF CLIN for Labor and a COST only CLIN for Travel, would I have to give separate notifications for each CLIN once 75% of the current funding is expended? Or is it based on the overall cumulative funded amount of both CLINS (Labor & Travel), in which case I would then give notice when 75% of the combined funding is expended. Is FAR 52.232-22 cost specific, or does it include incremental fixed fee funding as well? Section (b) of the LOF FAR states the following: " (b) The Schedule specifies the amount presently available for payment by the Government and allotted to this contract, the items covered, the Government’s share of the cost if this is a cost-sharing contract, and the period of performance it is estimated the allotted amount will cover. The parties contemplate that the Government will allot additional funds incrementally to the contract up to the full estimated cost to the Government specified in the Schedule, exclusive of any fee. The Contractor agrees to perform, or have performed, work on the contract up to the point at which the total amount paid and payable by the Government under the contract approximates but does not exceed the total amount actually allotted by the Government to the contract." Given this provision of the FAR I am assuming the LOF notification should be based on incremental COST funding only, and would exclude incremental Fixed Fee Funding, and would apply both to CPFF contracts and CPIF Cost Sharing Contracts . If anyone can provide any insight it would be much appreciated. Thank you.
I administer a CPIF contract that is currently underrunning. The price summary of the order allows a billing fee rate of 13%. At what point does the supplier earn their incentive fee (the portion of the underrun above 13% target fee that they are entitled to)? Do I withhold until contract closeout?
Invoicing CP Subcontract - CPIF task order. Standard process used to build cost plus rate (1 salaried individual, 1 hourly individual on contract) cost base calculated for both types of individuals. (salary, calculated to hourly rate based on 2080 hours for the year) or (hourly rate accordingly), OH&G&A applied (accordingly)= resultant rate, This build up was provided at bid in sanitized version to prime and un-sanitized version to govt. (approved and awarded) Client invoiced for number of hours X Resultant rate.. in a standard month, (160 hours), Salaried individual works 120 hours, hourly works 160 hours. Client returns to question why the salaried individuals rate did not fluctuate based on the number of hours worked…. (this is where I need help) I understand the concept of Uncompensated over time causing the cost base to fluctuate if a salaried person works more hours than a standard week / month. However, we do not have uncompensated over time, so I have no trouble making this calculation / adjustment.(this is not the issue) But what happens when a salaried individual works “less” than a full month? Client requesting to see rate fluctuation, but based on cost build up, if I fluctuate the “cost” (which by this situation would go up, not down) would that not be double dipping, if I’m building my cost with “salaried down time” calculated into my OH already? Why would my cost change, if I’m only invoicing for the number of hours worked at the resultant rate? Invoicing requirements stated in the contract: Subcontract number & TTO number Total Straight Time labor charges by person – hours, labor category , rate per hour, and extended amounts or Fixed unit price and quantity delivered Material costs (if any) Travel and per-diem costs (if any) itemized by TTO Other costs incurred (if any) allowable under this subcontract Total current invoice amount and Cumulative billings by TTO to date This is exactly what was provided on the invoice Isn't this why we build a negotiated rate schedule - submit and get approved, and the true up at year end with an ICE review /submit?
Hi, Wondering how to process a wage escalation REA for a CPIF contract before actual costs have incurred. When issuing the option we incorporated a new CBA WD. We were going to wait to process the REA to adjust Target Cost based on actuals but management wanted us to adjust the cost based on estimated cost. As long as the new CBA rates result in an allowable cost, why would we base an REA on estimated cost vs. actual cost when adjusting the Target Cost?