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I'm talking about gross hourly. I have been notified by my manager that the wage increase will be back paid to June of last year (something which had supposedly been in the works for some time). Does anyone know the rules with regard to back pay when there are changes to a prevailing wage? I found a WD for December 2015 for Washington, DC showing the move to the higher wage, which naturally leads me to wonder why the back pay only goes to June 2016 and not December 2015. I'm wondering if maybe the back pay only applies starting when there is an exercise of a contract option by the federal agency, even if that occurs months after the prevailing wage is increased on the WD.

Thanks for this. I will keep looking into this issue. Nice to know that I can file a complaint with the DOL if it needs to come to that.

I work under one contract and I am sure it is covered under the SCA. In April 2016, I received an email telling me that the “client” (I presume, the government agency) had retroactively incorporated new WDs into our contract and so my Health & Welfare benefit would increase by 25 cents. But it also said that there had been no change in the prevailing wage for my labor category. What puzzles me is that I obtained a copy of the WD for my contract from the HR department at my employer, and the wage listed for my labor category was, as I said before, over $2/hr higher than what I am paid. I was able to find an old copy of the same WD (or at least, with the same WD number) from 2013 that lists the hourly wage that I am currently paid. So essentially my wage hasn’t been updated since that time, even though the same WD now shows a higher number. Thanks for that info. I'm probably wrong about all this, but wanted to seek another opinion on this situation.

I work for a large federal contractor under a contract that must comply with SCA requirements. When I look up the wage determination for Washington, DC, where I work, I see that my position's hourly wage is over $2/hr higher than the wage I am paid. Is this because my hourly wage is determined by the WD that was in effect when the contract was put into effect? Or are changes to WDs supposed to be reflected on my paycheck whenever it is updated? I'm assuming the former, but would appreciate any information on this. Thanks!