CHILINVLN

In the instance I'm referring to, Paid Time Off (PTO) is utilized for anything ranging from vacation, sick days, personal days, etc.  It's technically referred to as "PTO".

2 minutes ago, Vern Edwards said:

Log out of Wifcon, go to Google, and do some research.

I've found several webpages that explain Virginia's laws in this regard.

Are you telling us that in 2016 you don't know how to find that information online?

What? Is it just easier to ask someone to tell you? Hell, call the Virginia Department of Labor and Industry if you don't know how to use a search engine.

Everything is available with enough research.  With that mentality, why does this forum even exist?  Maybe I should say the same to everyone else, "Log out of Wifcon, go to Google, and do some research".  I'll have 5,000+ posts in no time.

I appreciate your value add.

18 hours ago, here_2_help said:

Of course the PTO payout is optional. Some companies have "use it or lose it" and other companies combine vacation with sick leave--and there is an entitlement to earned vacation but not to unused sick leave. Each company is different and, as JRT132 noted, each state has different requirements.

H2H

I understand all states are different, however, in my original post I specifically asked this question as it pertains to Virginia.

I reviewed the links you provided and didn't find a clear answer.  I also reviewed reference links in this pages with no answer either.  The closest thing I found to the answer was: If you have accrued vacation days that you haven't yet used when you quit or are fired, you may be entitled to be paid for that time. About half of the 50 states have laws requiring employers to pay out an employee's unused vacation when the employment relationship ends.

I've yet to find an answer if this is a requirement in VA or a list that shows which states are included in that statement I posted above.

So in short, an employer has the option on whether or not they will payout earned PTO.  I never realized that was "optional" and could be defined in an Employee Handbook or HR policy.

In the Commonwealth of VA, is an employer required to payout Paid Time Off (PTO)?  If so, is there a source to cite and if not, are there specifics that can be provided on why not?

To further elaborate, there are other charge codes that are utilized by the staff. PTO, Corporate Training, etc. There is a lengthy list of G&A codes that are available for that purpose, and those are used when appropriate.

My point and question is specific to the time spent on a FFP contract in excess of a scheduled 8hr day for a salary-exempt employee and what affect that additional time has on projected budgets, etc.

As you stated, "Whether the employees continue to charge the contract, or charge OH, or G&A, is up to the individual contractor to decide. There are pros and cons associated with that decision and there is no "one size fits all" answer.

That's exactly the foundation of my question and I would like to understand what those pros and cons are so I can have additional information on the topic.

I apologize for using "bill", you're correct, I'm referring to charging to the contract.

Thanks for the feedback. I will look into the UCOT. Our salary staff don't receive overtime compensation, so I'm not sure what I'm looking for there, but I'm happy to ask.

Regarding the OH comment, while it's not currently done, I was curious to whether or not it would be acceptable in cases like:

1. Government is shutdown, staff are considered non-essential, couldn't I have them bill to an direct/unallowable charge code on a FFP contract? Wouldn't that be better than placing on G&A? Or, is that some type of violation? I've seen this done elsewhere, which is why I ask.

In this instance, sole source. However, not sure why that would matter? as it relates to the question I'm asking?

Answering the above questions.

1. The only other option would be an unbillable charge code directly associated to the project, or the hours could be placed on OH. This is not what's currently being done, as the additional hours are in fact being placed against the FFP project. Just saying what the alternative would be that I know of.

2. I don't believe that it does, though, would need to confirm whether that's true or not.

The employees working on the FFP project are 100% dedicated to that project and are not working on other projects. None of the subject contracts are FFP-LOE.

Good question, my apologies for not making that clear. The question is internal on what makes the most sense from a practice standpoint.

I searched this topic extensively and I could only find bits and pieces, but nothing to answer my question overall - so I'm hoping for some additional insight.

Pertaining to a FFP contract, once awarded, the estimated hours our company moves into our timekeeping system. So, if we estimate 1920HRS per FTE, we would move that over and allow each employee 1920 hours on contract. However, for those employees who work a few extra hours here and there to get the job done, or those who are motivated to go the extra mile, they're likely going to exceed the 1920 hours. If/when that happens, they will (towards then end of the PoP), receive a notification that they have exceeded the total # of hours allocated. As a result, the hours will need to be adjusted up with a higher ceiling so that they can continue billing.

In previous engagements, I've never seen a company place a ceiling on the total # of hours an employee can bill on a FFP contract, they only draw the line at the end of the PoP.

My understanding, it should not matter, as the labor rate is diluted. However, others say that projected profitability is affected if we thought we would accomplish the job with X hours and then it ends up taking Y hours. Labor cost is not necessarily affected because it's a salary position, but projected cost of project is affected because we thought it would be accomplished with fewer hours. It boils down to "budgeted hours".

I wanted some other input on this topic.