CPRsue

Sorry for setting off such a firestorm ...really expected this to be any easy question and answer, and just looking for clarification. The contract was PROPOSED using labor categories AT hourly rates for computation of total costs. The Contract does not stipulate hourly rates/labor categories for billing only outlines total costs in a whole dollar amount and fixed fee in a whole dollar amount. However, rates/labor categories/hours are required in a monthly financial report prepared for the customer. Again, I will try to make it clearer what I am trying to ask ... an employee is salary exempt at $1600 per week ... during a standard work week he will record 40 hours to the contract and the contract is charged the $1600 (basically $40 per hour) .... what if he works 60 hours in the week? is that contract charged the same $1600 and he records the 60 hours (basically $26.67 per hour)? or based upon our proposal which outlined a cost of $45 per hour for his labor category, is it the 60 hours at the $45 rate? We have a new DCAA auditor, and now a new COR, of which neither give guidance that is the same. Historically, we would charge the contract $1600 for 40 hours based upon the actual costs due to the Cost plus nature of the contract. Hope I was clearer ...

I am the owner of a small woman-owned HubZone company... and new to the forum ... We currently have an IDIQ base contract w/reqirements placed via task orders for (2) CPFF tasks and (1) CPFF completion type task. All the tasks are based upon proposed rates by labor category and represented in an hourly dollar amount. My question is what is the proper way to calculate the hours and appropriate cost for a salaried exempt employee who may work more than 40 hours in a week? For example a proposed labor category of Sr Computer Engineer at $40 per hour based upon 40 hrs a week ...if that employee works 60 hrs in a week the gross wages are $1600. Should the task be billed for 60 hour or 40 hours? should the task be charged at the $40 rate or is it the gross wages divided by the # of hours in essence reducing that $40 rate? Also, what if the employees actual is only $1520 ... is the billed amount at the proposed rate of $40 or is it once again the actual grosss wges divided by the number of hours actually worked? Someone please help clarify ... I apologize in advance for what seems like a very simple Contracting 101 type question, but a recent COR change has us now second guessing ourselves and past procedures...