SCA in Subcontracts & Subcontract Management Posted 13 hours ago · Report reply Perhaps it is because of a general hands off approach to service contract labor by those government program officials, contracting and contract administrators. However, I wonder why the government wouldn’t know what the proper wage classification of 200 employees is on an existing contract that is being recompeted for a successor contract. FAR 22.1008 describes the process and responsibilities for obtaining the wage determination to be included in the solicitation for the successor contract. For instance, 22.1008-1 says, in part, Quote “(d) Although the WDOL website provides assistance to the contracting agency to select the correct wage determination, the contracting agency remains responsible for the wage determination selected. If the contracting agency has used the e98 process, the Department of Labor will respond to the contracting agency based on the information provided on the e98. The contracting agency may rely upon the Department of Labor response as the correct wage determination for the contract.” I don’t know here if the proposer was using the labor classification provided or proposed something different. If it was different for 200 employees, shouldn’t that have tipped off the government that something was amiss with the government provided wage determination? Then, the government agreed with it. If the proposer did use the provided wage decision but was unable to rehire [EDIT:some] employees at that wage level, did DOL re-classify [EDIT: all] the employees at a higher minimum wage/fringe? Pardon me for my ignorance, but something seems to be wrong with the contract formation here. I don’t think that the conformance procedures were intended to have to be used for determining the minimum pay for the entire work force. Both the eventual contractor and the government should have known that something is wrong with the wage determination, if the proposer decided to propose a lower classification for the type of work included in the wage. determination. The government should have known what the correct classification is for 200 existing employees, if the eventual contractor confirmed it in its proposal only to find out later that that was incorrect. I don’t. Know if DOL ended up changing the classification that was in the wage decision or simply determined that the employees should have been classified at a higher level. EDIT: Lotus said in the original post: Quote In the proposal the then offeror, now contractor, clearly mapped all the SCA positions to General Clerk I in the applicable age determination, and built his rates on that rate as a base. Can Lotus or someone else please help clarify what happened and why, assuming that this is a successor contract? Thanks.